ServiceNow cta practice test

ServiceNow Certified Technical Architect

Last exam update: Nov 18 ,2025
Page 1 out of 4. Viewing questions 1-15 out of 47

Question 1

What is the main focus in the Foundation stage of implementing the CSDM framework?

  • A. Identifying and populating network infrastructure CIs
  • B. Preparing accurate business information for reporting
  • C. Setting up relationships between technology and business
  • D. Working on CMDB tables associated with ITSM
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
The Foundation stage of the CSDM framework focuses primarily on establishing the core structure of
your CMDB. This involves:
Defining the scope: Determine which services and applications will be managed within the CMDB.
Building the foundation data model: Implement the core CSDM classes and their relationships. This
includes key classes like Application Service, Business Application, and Technical Service Offering.
Populating foundational data: Start populating the CMDB with basic information about your core
services, applications, and the technologies that support them.
Why not the other options?
A: While network infrastructure CIs are important, they are not the primary focus in the Foundation
stage. The focus is on the core service and application model.
B: Accurate business information is crucial for reporting, but the Foundation stage prioritizes
establishing the structural relationships within the CMDB.
D: Working with ITSM tables is part of the broader CMDB implementation, but the Foundation stage
focuses on the core CSDM classes, which extend beyond ITSM.
Reference: ServiceNow CSDM documentation

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Question 2

How are new classes of Configuration Items (CIs) and relationships created in the ServiceNow
CMDB?

  • A. Importing data from external sources
  • B. Using predefined templates
  • C. Using IntegrationHub ETL
  • D. Extending other classes
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The most common and recommended way to create new CI classes in ServiceNow is by extending
existing classes. This leverages the existing data structure and relationships within the CMDB.
Here's why this approach is preferred:
Inheritance: Extending a class allows the new class to inherit attributes and relationships from the
parent class, ensuring consistency and reducing redundancy.
Data Model Integrity: It helps maintain the integrity of the CMDB data model by building upon the
established CSDM framework.
Customization: Extending classes provides flexibility to add specific attributes and relationships that
are unique to the new CI class.
Why not the other options?
A: While importing data can populate the CMDB, it's not the primary method for creating new CI
classes and their relationships.
B: ServiceNow does not offer predefined templates for creating new CI classes.
C: IntegrationHub ETL is a powerful tool for data integration, but it's primarily used for data
transformation and loading, not for creating new CI classes.
Reference: ServiceNow CMDB documentation, ServiceNow Developer training materials

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Question 3

What benefits does the Common Service Data Model (CSDM) provide to organizations using
ServiceNow products?

  • A. Rationalization, outage reduction, and business processes alignment
  • B. Improved security, increased storage capacity, and faster processing speed
  • C. Automated deployment, maintenance efficiency, and comprehensive monitoring
  • D. Customization, consistent analysis, and data governance
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The CSDM offers several key benefits, and the best fit among the options is D. Customization,
consistent analysis, and data governance. Here's why:
Customization: CSDM provides a framework, but it allows for customization to fit specific
organizational needs. You can extend the data model with new CI classes and attributes while
maintaining a consistent structure.
Consistent Analysis: CSDM enables consistent reporting and analysis across the organization by
providing a standardized structure for CMDB data. This makes it easier to gain insights into services,
applications, and their supporting infrastructure.
Data Governance: CSDM promotes data governance by establishing clear definitions, relationships,
and ownership for data within the CMDB. This helps ensure data quality and consistency.
Why not the other options?
A: While CSDM can indirectly contribute to rationalization and business process alignment, these are
not its primary benefits. Outage reduction is more related to incident and problem management.
B: Improved security, storage capacity, and processing speed are not direct benefits of CSDM. These
are more related to the underlying ServiceNow platform infrastructure.
C: Automated deployment and maintenance efficiency are not core benefits of CSDM. While CSDM
can support these areas, they are not its main focus.
Reference: ServiceNow CSDM documentation

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Question 4

A system administrator, Priya, notices that certain Configuration Items (CIs) in the CMDB have not
populated the required and recommended fields, impacting data integrity. Which KPI should Priya
review to diagnose this issue?

  • A. Compliance
  • B. Correctness
  • C. Completeness
  • D. Relationships
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is
Completeness.
Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information
filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.
Why not the other options?
Compliance: Compliance focuses on whether CIs meet defined standards and policies, not
necessarily on the completeness of their data.
Correctness: Correctness relates to the accuracy of the data in the CMDB, not whether all required
fields are populated.
Relationships: Relationships measure the connections between CIs, not the completeness of
individual CI records.
Reference: ServiceNow CMDB documentation, ServiceNow Knowledge Base articles on CMDB KPIs

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Question 5

What action does the Identification and Reconciliation module perform to reduce duplicates in the
CMDB?

  • A. Merges duplicate records automatically
  • B. Uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs
  • C. Validates data sources to ensure accuracy
  • D. Assigns unique identifiers to each CI
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs.
These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already
exists in the CMDB or if it's a new CI.
Here's how it works:
Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial
number, MAC address, hostname).
Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find
potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new
information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.
Why not the other options?
A: While the I&R engine can facilitate merging duplicates, it doesn't automatically merge them
without human review and approval.
C: Data source validation is important, but it's not the primary function of the I&R engine in duplicate
reduction.
D: Assigning unique identifiers is a function of the CMDB itself, not specifically the I&R engine.
Reference: ServiceNow Identification and Reconciliation documentation

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Question 6

Which methods can be used to populate the CMDB with data from third-party sources? Choose 2
answers

  • A. Identification and Reconciliation Engine (IRE)
  • B. Discovery
  • C. IntegrationHub ETL
  • D. Service Graph Connectors
  • E. Service Mapping
Mark Question:
Answer:

C D


Explanation:
The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are:
C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to
various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the
CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party
systems.
D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect
ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to
import data from these sources into the CMDB.
Why not the other options?
A: The I&R engine primarily focuses on identifying and reconciling CIs, not on the initial population of
data from external sources.
B: Discovery is used to automatically discover and populate information about devices and
applications within your own network, not primarily from third-party sources.
E: Service Mapping focuses on discovering and mapping the relationships between applications and
infrastructure components, not on importing data from external sources.
Reference: ServiceNow IntegrationHub ETL documentation, ServiceNow Service Graph Connectors
documentation

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Question 7

What are the primary capabilities of Service Mapping in ServiceNow?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
  • B. Enhance cybersecurity measures across systems
  • C. Automate routine IT infrastructure updates
  • D. Oversee software licensing for various platforms
  • E. Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services
Mark Question:
Answer:

A E


Explanation:
Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities:
A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps
shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by
mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support,
providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services.
E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core
function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between
applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This
creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.
Why not the other options?
B: While Service Mapping can indirectly contribute to cybersecurity by providing visibility into the IT
environment, enhancing cybersecurity measures is not its primary function.
C: Automating routine IT infrastructure updates is typically handled by other ServiceNow capabilities
like Orchestration, not Service Mapping.
D: Software licensing management is usually handled by Software Asset Management tools, not
Service Mapping.
Reference: ServiceNow Service Mapping documentation

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Question 8

What does a ServiceNow governance framework typically define?
Choose 3 answers

  • A. How decisions are made
  • B. What decisions need to be made
  • C. Who is involved in decision-making
  • D. Recurring schedules for governance meetings
  • E. How work gets done on the platform
Mark Question:
Answer:

A, B, C


Explanation:
A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform
and its applications. It typically defines:
A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to
the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform
upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication
protocols.
B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require
governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security,
data management, and integration with other systems.
C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for
different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board,
steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.
Why not the other options?
D: While recurring schedules for governance meetings are important, they are not a defining
element of the governance framework itself. The framework focuses on the overall structure and
processes for decision-making.
E: How work gets done on the platform is more related to process definitions and workflows within
specific applications, not the overarching governance framework.
Reference: ServiceNow Governance, Risk, and Compliance documentation, ITIL 4 framework

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Question 9

A new project request requires quick implementation but involves portfolio realignment. As an IT
leader, who should you consult to prioritize this demand?

  • A. Demand Board
  • B. Executive Steering Board
  • C. Program Steering Committee
  • D. Technical Governance Board
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here's why:
Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under
the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions
about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.
Why not the other options?
A . Demand Board: The Demand Board typically focuses on evaluating and prioritizing individual
demands or requests, but they may not have the authority to make decisions about portfolio
realignment.
C . Program Steering Committee: This committee focuses on the governance and oversight of specific
programs, not on overall portfolio strategy.
D . Technical Governance Board: This board focuses on technical standards, architecture, and
security, not on strategic portfolio decisions.
Reference: ITIL 4 framework, General IT governance best practices

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Question 10

Under technical governance policies, what does environmental management in ServiceNow
primarily define?

  • A. Instance structure
  • B. Data ownership
  • C. User access policies
  • D. Application customization
Mark Question:
Answer:

A


Explanation:
In the context of ServiceNow technical governance, environmental management primarily focuses
on defining the instance structure. This includes:
Instance Segmentation: Determining how many instances are needed (e.g., separate instances for
development, test, and production) and how they relate to each other.
Instance Upgrades: Establishing policies and procedures for managing instance upgrades, including
scheduling, testing, and communication.
Instance Maintenance: Defining guidelines for ongoing maintenance activities, such as patching,
backups, and performance monitoring.
Why not the other options?
B . Data ownership: Data ownership is typically addressed within data governance policies, not
specifically environmental management.
C . User access policies: User access policies are part of security governance and are handled through
roles, permissions, and access control lists.
D . Application customization: Application customization is governed by development and
configuration standards, not directly by environmental management.
Reference: ServiceNow platform documentation, ITIL 4 framework

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Question 11

What benefits does effective testing provide?
Choose 3 answers

  • A. Ensures compliance with industry standards
  • B. Conforms to specifications as defined in stories
  • C. Enhances overall system performance
  • D. Validates new functionality without introducing regressions
  • E. Identifies defects early in the development process
Mark Question:
Answer:

B, D, E


Explanation:
Effective testing provides several key benefits:
B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software
meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement
documents.
D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or
changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions).
E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper
and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.
Why not the other options?
A . Ensures compliance with industry standards: While testing can help with compliance, it's not the
primary goal. Compliance often involves specific audits and assessments.
C . Enhances overall system performance: Performance testing is a specific type of testing that
focuses on system performance, but it's not a general benefit of all testing.
Reference: Software testing best practices, ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus

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Question 12

What aspect of software is evaluated during non-functional testing?

  • A. Specific behaviors and outputs of the system.
  • B. The way a system operates and meets user expectations.
  • C. The creation of records and setting field values.
  • D. Functional requirements outlined in the design document.
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of
qualities like:
Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability
Usability: Ease of use, user interface design
Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches
Reliability: System stability and availability
Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates
Why not the other options?
A . Specific behaviors and outputs of the system: This is the focus of functional testing, which verifies
that the system does what it's supposed to do.
C . The creation of records and setting field values: This is a specific functional aspect of the system.
D . Functional requirements outlined in the design document: These are tested during functional
testing.
Reference: Software testing best practices, ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus

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Question 13

What type of testing requires human observation to measure how user-friendly, efficient, or
convenient the software or product is for end-users?

  • A. Smoke testing
  • B. Usability testing
  • C. Integration testing
  • D. System testing
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-
friendliness of a software product.
In usability testing:
Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting.
Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion.
Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for
improvement.
Why not the other options?
A . Smoke testing: A quick, preliminary test to ensure basic functionality is working.
C . Integration testing: Tests the interaction between different modules or components of a system.
D . System testing: Tests the entire system as a whole.
Reference: Software testing best practices, Usability testing resources

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Question 14

Which type of testing is best suited for scenarios requiring repeated execution of tasks over a long
period of time?

  • A. Automated testing
  • B. Usability testing
  • C. Ad hoc testing
  • D. Manual testing
Mark Question:
Answer:

A


Explanation:
Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here's why:

Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans.
Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error.

Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue.
Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that
existing functionality hasn't been broken by new changes.
Why not the other options?
B . Usability testing: Focuses on user experience and requires human observation.
C . Ad hoc testing: Informal, unplanned testing without specific test cases.
D . Manual testing: Performed by humans, which can be time-consuming and prone to errors for
repetitive tasks.
Reference: Software testing best practices, Automated testing tools and frameworks

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Question 15

A company is preparing for a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Which tool shortens the time to validate
critical processes post-upgrade?

  • A. Test Management 2.0
  • B. Automated Testing Framework (ATF)
  • C. Manual testing scripts
  • D. System health dashboard
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
The Automated Testing Framework (ATF) is the best tool for quickly validating critical processes after
a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Here's why:
Automated Execution: ATF allows you to create automated tests that can be run quickly and
repeatedly after the upgrade. This significantly reduces the time required for testing compared to
manual methods.
Comprehensive Coverage: You can create automated tests for various processes, workflows, UI
actions, and business rules, ensuring comprehensive validation of critical functionality.
Regression Testing: ATF is particularly valuable for regression testing, ensuring that the upgrade
hasn't introduced any unexpected issues or broken existing functionality.
Why not the other options?
A . Test Management 2.0: While Test Management 2.0 provides a framework for managing tests, it
doesn't inherently shorten the testing time itself. It can be used with ATF to organize and track
automated tests.
C . Manual testing scripts: Manual testing is time-consuming and prone to errors, especially for
repetitive tasks involved in upgrade validation.
D . System health dashboard: This dashboard provides an overview of system performance and
health, but it doesn't directly validate specific processes or workflows.
Reference: ServiceNow Automated Test Framework (ATF) documentation

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