The second line of defense in cybersecurity includes:
B
Explanation:
The second line of defense in cybersecurity includes risk management monitoring, and
measurement of controls. This is because the second line of defense is responsible for ensuring that
the first line of defense (the operational managers and staff who own and manage risks) is effectively
designed and operating as intended. The second line of defense also provides guidance, oversight,
and challenge to the first line of defense. The other options are not part of the second line of
defense, but rather belong to the first line of defense (A), the third line of defense C, or an external
service provider (D).
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational
understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
B
Explanation:
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using
organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the
identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their
cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that
could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using
organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to
cybersecurity events.
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
A
Explanation:
The “recover” function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience
and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps
organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while
also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part
of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
Availability can be protected through the use of:
D
Explanation:
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity
management. This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are
accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options
are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A),
integrity C, or awareness (D).
Which of the following would provide the BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities
when comprehensive classification is not feasible?
C
Explanation:
The BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is
not feasible is a business dependency assessment. This is because a business dependency
assessment helps to identify the criticality and sensitivity of business processes and their supporting
assets, based on their contribution to the organization’s objectives and value proposition. This allows
for prioritizing protection activities according to the level of risk and impact. The other options are
not as effective as a business dependency assessment, because they either use a single classification
level allocation (A), which does not account for different levels of risk and impact; require a
significant amount of time and resources to perform a business process re-engineering (B); or rely on
external parties to cover potential losses without reducing the likelihood or impact of incidents (D).
A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information
processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective,
which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?
C
Explanation:
From a regulatory perspective, the MOST important thing for the healthcare organization to
determine when outsourcing its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service
(SaaS) provider is the incident escalation procedures. This is because incident escalation procedures
define how security incidents involving patient information are reported, communicated, escalated,
and resolved between the healthcare organization and the SaaS provider. This is essential for
complying with regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandate timely notification and
response to breaches of protected health information. The other options are not as important as
incident escalation procedures from a regulatory perspective, because they either relate to technical
aspects that may not affect compliance (A, B), or operational aspects that may not affect patient
information security (D).
Which of the following is MOST critical to guiding and managing security activities throughout an
organization to ensure objectives are met?
C
Explanation:
The MOST critical thing to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to
ensure objectives are met is establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance. This
is because metrics provide quantifiable and objective data that can be used to evaluate the
effectiveness and efficiency of security activities, as well as identify gaps and areas for improvement.
Metrics also enable communication and reporting of security performance to stakeholders, such as
senior management, board members, auditors, regulators, customers, etc. The other options are not
as critical as establishing metrics, because they either involve spending money without knowing the
return on investment (A), adopting standards without customizing them to fit the organization’s
context and needs (B), or conducting training without assessing its impact on behavior change (D).
Which of the following is the BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information?
A
Explanation:
The BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information is using access controls, file
permissions, and encryption. This is because these techniques help to prevent unauthorized access,
disclosure, or modification of digital information, by restricting who can access the information, what
they can do with it, and how they can access it. The other options are not as effective as using access
controls, file permissions, and encryption, because they either relate to protecting availability (B),
integrity C, or awareness (D).
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to information risk management when
outsourcing IT function to a third party?
B
Explanation:
The GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third
party is that providers may be reluctant to share technical details on the extent of their information
protection mechanisms. This is because providers may consider their information protection
mechanisms as proprietary or confidential, or may not want to reveal their weaknesses or
vulnerabilities. This makes it difficult for the outsourcing organization to assess the level of security
and compliance of the provider, and to monitor and audit their performance. The other options are
not as challenging as providers being reluctant to share technical details, because they either involve
legal or contractual aspects that can be clarified or negotiated before outsourcing (A, D), or human
resource aspects that can be verified or validated by the provider C.
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
B
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk
prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and
consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and
exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical
vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as
using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A),
eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
Which of the following is a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell
session from the Internet for remote logon?
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SSH.
SSH stands for Secure Shell, a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line
shell session from the Internet for remote logon. SSH allows users to remotely access and execute
commands on a server without exposing their credentials or data to eavesdropping, tampering or
replay attacks.
SSH also supports secure file transfer protocols such as SFTP and SCP1
.
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel
between two or more devices over a public network such as the Internet.
VPN allows users to access
resources on a remote network as if they were physically connected to it, while protecting their
privacy and identity2
.
IPsec stands for Internet Protocol Security, a set of protocols that provides security at the network
layer of the Internet. IPsec supports two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. Transport mode
encrypts only the payload of each packet, while tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet, including
the header.
IPsec can be used to secure VPN connections, as well as other applications that require
data confidentiality, integrity and authentication3
.
SFTP stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol, a protocol that uses SSH to securely transfer files
between a client and a server over a network. SFTP provides encryption, authentication and
compression features to ensure the security and reliability of file transfers.
:
SSH (Secure Shell) 2
:
What is a VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN | Kaspersky 3
:
IPsec - Wikipedia
:
[SFTP - Wikipedia]
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
D
Explanation:
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is
inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify
and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets,
systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and
discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic
governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the
ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the
inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing
(B), or risk-based shakeout C.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an
organization?
B
Explanation:
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the
organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security
assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and
performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor
security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues
in the vendor’s security controls or processes. The other options are not as indicative of mature
third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or
mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D),
or relying on the vendor’s self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
D
Explanation:
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is
inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify
and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets,
systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and
discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic
governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the
ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the
inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing
(B), or risk-based shakeout C.
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a
policy?
D
Explanation:
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards.
This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected
from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement.
Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with
policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a
policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations
for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.