Which of the following is a PRIMARY risk that can be introduced through the use of a site-to-site
virtual private network (VPN) with a service provider?
B
Explanation:
Site-to-site VPNs establish secure, encrypted connections between two networks over the internet,
typically used to link corporate networks with remote sites or a service provider's network. However,
while these VPNs secure data transmission, they introduce specific risks.
The primary risk associated with a site-to-site VPN with a service provider is the loss of visibility into
user behavior. Here’s why:
Limited Monitoring: Since the traffic is encrypted and routed through the VPN tunnel, the
organization may lose visibility over user activities within the service provider's network.
Blind Spots in Traffic Analysis: Security monitoring tools (like IDS/IPS) that rely on inspecting
unencrypted data may be ineffective once data enters the VPN tunnel.
User Behavior Analytics (UBA) Issues: It becomes challenging to track insider threats or compromised
accounts due to the encapsulation and encryption of network traffic.
Vendor Dependency: The organization might depend on the service provider’s security measures to
detect malicious activity, which may not align with the organization’s security standards.
Other options analysis:
A . Loss of data integrity: VPNs generally ensure data integrity using protocols like IPsec, which
validates packet integrity.
C . Data exfiltration: While data exfiltration can occur, it is typically a consequence of compromised
credentials or insider threats, not a direct result of VPN usage.
D . Denial of service (DoS) attacks: While VPN endpoints can be targeted in a DoS attack, it is not the
primary risk specific to VPN use with a service provider.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 4: Network Security Operations: Discusses risks related to VPNs, including reduced visibility.
Chapter 7: Security Monitoring and Incident Detection: Highlights the importance of maintaining
visibility even when using encrypted connections.
Chapter 8: Incident Response and Recovery: Addresses challenges related to VPN monitoring during
incidents.
A bank employee is found to be exfiltration sensitive information by uploading it via email. Which of
the following security measures would be MOST effective in detecting this type of insider threat?
A
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are specifically designed to detect and prevent unauthorized
data transfers. In the context of an insider threat, where a bank employee attempts to exfiltrate
sensitive information via email, DLP solutions are most effective because they:
Monitor Data in Motion: DLP can inspect outgoing emails for sensitive content based on pre-defined
rules and policies.
Content Inspection and Filtering: It examines email attachments and the body of the message for
patterns that match sensitive data (like financial records or PII).
Real-Time Alerts: Generates alerts or blocks the transfer when sensitive data is detected.
Granular Policies: Allows customization to restrict specific types of data transfers, including via email.
Other options analysis:
B . Intrusion detection system (IDS): IDS monitors network traffic for signs of compromise but is not
designed to inspect email content or detect data exfiltration specifically.
C . Network segmentation: Reduces the risk of lateral movement but does not directly monitor or
prevent data exfiltration through email.
D . Security information and event management (SIEM): SIEM can correlate events and detect
anomalies but lacks the real-time data inspection that DLP offers.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 5: Insider Threats and Mitigation: Discusses how DLP tools are essential for detecting data
exfiltration.
Chapter 6: Threat Intelligence and Analysis: Covers data loss scenarios and the role of DLP.
Chapter 8: Incident Detection and Response: Explains the use of DLP for detecting insider threats.
Which of the following network topologies is MOST resilient to network failures and can prevent a
single point of failure?
A
Explanation:
A mesh network topology is the most resilient to network failures because:
Redundancy: Each node is interconnected, providing multiple pathways for data to travel.
No Single Point of Failure: If one connection fails, data can still be routed through alternative paths.
High Fault Tolerance: The decentralized structure ensures that the failure of a single device or link
does not significantly impact network performance.
Ideal for Critical Infrastructure: Often used in environments where uptime is critical, such as financial
or emergency services networks.
Other options analysis:
B . Star: A central hub connects all nodes, so if the hub fails, the entire network collapses.
C . Bus: A single backbone cable means a break in the cable can disrupt the entire network.
D . Ring: Data travels in a circular path; a single break can isolate part of the network unless it is a
dual-ring topology.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 4: Network Security Operations: Discusses network topology and its impact on reliability and
redundancy.
Chapter 9: Network Design and Architecture: Highlights resilient topologies, including mesh, for
secure and fault-tolerant operations.
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a poorly enforced bring your own device (8YOD)
policy?
C
Explanation:
A poorly enforced Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy can lead to the rise of Shadow IT, where
employees use unauthorized devices, software, or cloud services without IT department approval.
This often occurs because:
Lack of Policy Clarity: Employees may not be aware of which devices or applications are approved.
Absence of Monitoring: If the organization does not track personal device usage, employees may
introduce unvetted apps or tools.
Security Gaps: Personal devices may not meet corporate security standards, leading to data leaks and
vulnerabilities.
Data Governance Issues: IT departments lose control over data accessed or stored on unauthorized
devices, increasing the risk of data loss or exposure.
Other options analysis:
A . Weak passwords: While BYOD policies might influence password practices, weak passwords are
not directly caused by poor BYOD enforcement.
B . Network congestion: Increased device usage might cause congestion, but this is more of a
performance issue than a security risk.
D . Unapproved social media posts: While possible, this issue is less directly related to poor BYOD
policy enforcement.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 3: Asset and Device Management: Discusses risks associated with poorly managed BYOD
policies.
Chapter 7: Threat Monitoring and Detection: Highlights how Shadow IT can hinder threat detection.
Which of the following roles typically performs routine vulnerability scans?
D
Explanation:
An IT security specialist is responsible for performing routine vulnerability scans as part of
maintaining the organization's security posture. Their primary tasks include:
Vulnerability Assessment: Using automated tools to detect security flaws in networks, applications,
and systems.
Regular Scanning: Running scheduled scans to identify new vulnerabilities introduced through
updates or configuration changes.
Reporting: Analyzing scan results and providing reports to management and security teams.
Remediation Support: Working with IT staff to patch or mitigate identified vulnerabilities.
Other options analysis:
A . Incident response manager: Primarily focuses on responding to security incidents, not performing
routine scans.
B . Information security manager: Manages the overall security program but does not typically
conduct scans.
C . IT auditor: Reviews the effectiveness of security controls but does not directly perform scanning.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 6: Vulnerability and Patch Management: Outlines the responsibilities of IT security
specialists in conducting vulnerability assessments.
Chapter 8: Threat and Vulnerability Assessment: Discusses the role of specialists in maintaining
security baselines.
An organization was breached via a web application attack to a database in which user inputs were
not validated. This can BEST be described as which type of attack?
A
Explanation:
The described scenario indicates a Injection (i) attack, where the attacker exploits insufficient input
validation in a web application to manipulate queries. This type of attack falls under the category of
Broken Access Control because:
Improper Input Handling: The application fails to properly sanitize or validate user inputs, allowing
malicious commands to execute.
Direct Database Manipulation: Attackers can bypass normal authentication or gain elevated access by
injecting code.
OWASP Top Ten 2021: Lists Broken Access Control as a critical risk, often leading to data breaches
when input validation is weak.
Other options analysis:
B . Infection: Typically involves malware, which is not relevant here.
C . Buffer overflow: Involves memory management errors, not manipulation.
D . X-Path: Involves XML query manipulation, not databases.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 4: Web Application Security: Discusses Injection as a common form of broken access
control.
Chapter 9: Secure Coding and Development: Stresses the importance of input validation to prevent i.
Which of the following is a KEY difference between traditional deployment methods and continuous
integration/continuous deployment (CI/CD)?
D
Explanation:
The key difference between traditional deployment methods and CI/CD (Continuous
Integration/Continuous Deployment) is the speed and frequency of feedback during the software
development lifecycle.
Traditional Deployment: Typically follows a linear, staged approach (e.g., development → testing →
deployment), often resulting in slower feedback loops.
CI/CD Pipelines: Integrate automated testing and deployment processes, allowing developers to
quickly identify and resolve issues.
Speed of Feedback: CI/CD tools automatically test code changes upon each commit, providing near-
instant feedback. This drastically reduces the time between code changes and error detection.
Rapid Iteration: Teams can immediately address issues, making the development process more
efficient and resilient.
Other options analysis:
A . CI/CD decreases the frequency of updates: CI/CD actually increases the frequency of updates by
automating the deployment process.
B . CI/CD decreases the amount of testing: CI/CD usually increases testing by integrating automated
tests throughout the pipeline.
C . CI/CD increases the number of errors: Proper CI/CD practices reduce errors by catching them
early.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 10: Secure DevOps and CI/CD Practices: Discusses how CI/CD improves feedback and rapid
bug fixing.
Chapter 7: Automation in Security Operations: Highlights the benefits of automated testing in CI/CD
environments.
Exposing the session identifier in a URL is an example of which web application-specific risk?
C
Explanation:
Exposing the session identifier in a URL is a classic example of an identification and authentication
failure because:
Session Hijacking Risk: Attackers can intercept session IDs when exposed in URLs, especially through
techniques like referrer header leaks or logs.
Session Fixation: If the session ID is predictable or accessible, attackers can force a user to log in with
a known ID.
OWASP Top Ten 2021 - Identification and Authentication Failures (A07): Exposing session identifiers
makes it easier for attackers to impersonate users.
Secure Implementation: Best practices dictate storing session IDs in HTTP-only cookies rather than in
URLs to prevent exposure.
Other options analysis:
A . Cryptographic failures: This risk involves improper encryption practices, not session management.
B . Insecure design and implementation: Broad category, but this specific flaw is more aligned with
authentication issues.
D . Broken access control: Involves authorization flaws rather than authentication or session
handling.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 4: Web Application Security: Covers session management best practices and related
vulnerabilities.
Chapter 8: Application Security Testing: Discusses testing for session-related flaws.
Cyber threat intelligence is MOST important for:
D
Explanation:
Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) is primarily focused on understanding the tactics, techniques, and
procedures (TTPs) used by adversaries. The goal is to gain insights into:
Attack Patterns: How cybercriminals or threat actors operate.
Indicators of Compromise (IOCs): Data related to attacks, such as IP addresses or domain names.
Threat Actor Profiles: Understanding motives and methods.
Operational Threat Hunting: Using intelligence to proactively search for threats in an environment.
Decision Support: Assisting SOC teams and management in making informed security decisions.
Other options analysis:
A . Performing root cause analysis for cyber attacks: While CTI can inform such analysis, it is not the
primary purpose.
B . Configuring SIEM systems and endpoints: CTI can support configuration, but that is not its main
function.
C . Recommending best practices for database security: CTI is more focused on threat analysis rather
than specific security configurations.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 6: Threat Intelligence and Analysis: Explains how CTI is used to reveal adversarial TTPs.
Chapter 9: Threat Intelligence in Incident Response: Highlights how CTI helps identify emerging
threats.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to obtain business owner approval of cybersecurity
initiatives across an organisation?
B
Explanation:
The most effective way to obtain business owner approval for cybersecurity initiatives is to create a
steering committee that includes key stakeholders from different departments. This approach works
because:
Inclusive Decision-Making: Involving business owners in a structured committee fosters collaboration
and buy-in.
Alignment with Business Goals: A steering committee ensures that cybersecurity initiatives align with
the organization's strategic objectives.
Regular Communication: Provides a formal platform to present cybersecurity challenges, proposed
solutions, and progress updates.
Informed Decisions: Business owners are more likely to support initiatives when they understand the
risks and benefits.
Consensus Building: A committee fosters a sense of ownership and shared responsibility for
cybersecurity.
Other options analysis:
A . Provide data classifications: While useful for identifying data sensitivity, this alone does not
directly gain approval.
C . Generate progress reports: These are informative but lack the strategic collaboration needed for
decision-making.
D . Conduct an Internal audit: Helps assess current security posture but does not engage business
owners proactively.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 2: Governance and Management: Discusses forming committees for cross-functional
decision-making.
Chapter 5: Risk Management Strategies: Emphasizes stakeholder engagement through structured
groups.
Target discovery and service enumeration would MOST likely be used by an attacker who has the
initial objective of:
B
Explanation:
Target discovery and service enumeration are fundamental steps in the reconnaissance phase of an
attack. An attacker typically:
Discovers Hosts and Services: Identifies active devices and open ports on a network.
Enumerates Services: Determines which services are running on open ports to understand possible
entry points.
Identify Attack Vectors: Once services are mapped, attackers look for vulnerabilities specific to those
services.
Tools: Attackers commonly use tools like Nmap or Masscan for port scanning and enumeration.
Other options analysis:
A . Corrupting process memory: Typically associated with exploitation rather than reconnaissance.
C . Deploying backdoors: This occurs after gaining access, not during the initial discovery phase.
D . Gaining privileged access: Typically follows successful exploitation, not discovery.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 6: Threat Hunting and Reconnaissance: Covers methods used for identifying attack surfaces.
Chapter 8: Network Scanning Techniques: Details how attackers use scanning tools to identify open
ports and services.
Which of the following is the MOST effective approach for tracking vulnerabilities in an organization's
systems and applications?
C
Explanation:
The most effective approach to tracking vulnerabilities is to regularly perform vulnerability scans and
assessments because:
Proactive Identification: Regular scanning detects newly introduced vulnerabilities from software
updates or configuration changes.
Automated Monitoring: Modern scanning tools (like Nessus or OpenVAS) can automatically identify
vulnerabilities in systems and applications.
Assessment Reports: Provide prioritized lists of discovered vulnerabilities, helping IT teams address
the most critical issues first.
Compliance and Risk Management: Routine scans are essential for maintaining security baselines
and compliance with standards (like PCI-DSS or ISO 27001).
Other options analysis:
A . Wait for external reports: Reactive and risky, as vulnerabilities might remain unpatched.
B . Rely on employee reporting: Inconsistent and unlikely to cover all vulnerabilities.
D . Track only public vulnerabilities: Ignores zero-day and privately disclosed issues.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 6: Vulnerability Management: Emphasizes continuous scanning as a critical part of risk
mitigation.
Chapter 9: Security Monitoring Practices: Discusses automated scanning and vulnerability tracking.
A small organization has identified a potential risk associated with its outdated backup system and
has decided to implement a new cloud-based real-time backup system to reduce the likelihood of
data loss. Which of the following risk responses has the organization chosen?
A
Explanation:
The organization is implementing a new cloud-based real-time backup system to reduce the
likelihood of data loss, which is an example of risk mitigation because:
Reducing Risk Impact: By upgrading from an outdated system, the organization minimizes the
potential consequences of data loss.
Implementing Controls: The new backup system is a proactive control measure designed to decrease
the risk.
Enhancing Recovery Capabilities: Real-time backups ensure that data remains intact and recoverable
even in case of a failure.
Other options analysis:
B . Risk avoidance: Involves eliminating the risk entirely, not just reducing it.
C . Risk transfer: Typically involves shifting the risk to a third party (like insurance), not implementing
technical controls.
D . Risk acceptance: Involves acknowledging the risk without implementing changes.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 5: Risk Management: Clearly differentiates between mitigation, avoidance, transfer, and
acceptance.
Chapter 7: Backup and Recovery Planning: Discusses modern data protection strategies and their risk
implications.
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to balance cybersecurity risks and address
compliance requirements?
C
Explanation:
Balancing cybersecurity risks with compliance requirements requires a strategic approach that aligns
security practices with business goals. The best way to achieve this is to:
Contextual Evaluation: Assess compliance requirements in relation to the organization's operational
needs and objectives.
Risk-Based Approach: Instead of blindly following standards, integrate them within the existing risk
management framework.
Custom Implementation: Tailor compliance controls to ensure they do not hinder critical business
functions while maintaining security.
Stakeholder Involvement: Engage business units to understand how compliance can be integrated
smoothly.
Other options analysis:
A . Accept compliance conflicts: This is a defeatist approach and does not resolve the underlying
issue.
B . Meet minimum standards: This might leave gaps in security and does not foster a comprehensive
risk-based approach.
D . Implement only non-impeding requirements: Selectively implementing compliance controls can
lead to critical vulnerabilities.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 2: Governance and Risk Management: Discusses aligning compliance with business
objectives.
Chapter 5: Risk Management Strategies: Emphasizes a balanced approach to security and
compliance.
Which of the following MOST effectively minimizes the impact of a control failure?
C
Explanation:
The most effective way to minimize the impact of a control failure is to employ Defense in Depth,
which involves:
Layered Security Controls: Implementing multiple, overlapping security measures to protect assets.
Redundancy: If one control fails (e.g., a firewall), others (like IDS, endpoint protection, and network
monitoring) continue to provide protection.
Minimizing Single Points of Failure: By diversifying security measures, no single failure will
compromise the entire system.
Adaptive Security Posture: Layered defenses allow quick adjustments and contain threats.
Other options analysis:
A . Business continuity plan (BCP): Focuses on maintaining operations after an incident, not directly
on minimizing control failures.
B . Business impact analysis (BIA): Identifies potential impacts but does not reduce failure impact
directly.
D . Information security policy: Guides security practices but does not provide practical mitigation
during a failure.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition Reference:
Chapter 7: Defense in Depth Strategies: Emphasizes the importance of layering controls to reduce
failure impacts.
Chapter 9: Incident Response and Mitigation: Explains how defense in depth supports resilience.