Eccouncil ecss practice test

EC-Council Certified Security Specialist (ECSSv10)

Last exam update: Nov 12 ,2025
Page 1 out of 7. Viewing questions 1-15 out of 100

Question 1

Which of the following environmental controls options saves the hardware from humidity and heat,
increases hardware performance, and maintains consistent room temperature?

  • A. Hot and cold aisles
  • B. Lighting system
  • C. EMI shielding
  • D. Temperature indicator
Mark Question:
Answer:

A


Explanation:
Hot and cold aisle containment systems are environmental control strategies used in data centers to
manage the temperature and humidity levels. This setup involves alternating rows of cold air intakes
and hot air exhausts. The cold aisles face air conditioner output ducts, while the hot aisles face air
conditioner return ducts. This arrangement can significantly improve the efficiency of cooling
systems, protect hardware from overheating and humidity, enhance hardware performance, and
maintain a consistent room temperature.
Reference: The explanation provided is based on general knowledge of environmental control
systems in IT infrastructure. For detailed information, it is recommended to refer to the EC-Council
Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) study materials and official documentation.

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Question 2

Martin, a hacker, aimed to crash a target system. For this purpose, he spoofed the source IP address
with the target's IP address and sent many ICMP ECHO request packets to an IP broadcast network,
causing all the hosts to respond to the received ICMP ECHO requests and ultimately crashing the
target machine.
Identify the type of attack performed by Martin in the above scenario.

  • A. UDP flood attack
  • B. Multi vector attack
  • C. Smurf attack
  • D. Fragmentation attack
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
In the scenario described, Martin conducted a Smurf attack. This type of attack involves spoofing the
source IP address with the target’s IP address and sending ICMP ECHO request packets to an IP
broadcast network. The broadcast network then amplifies the traffic by directing it to all hosts, which
respond to the ICMP ECHO requests. This flood of responses is sent back to the spoofed source IP
address, which is the target system, leading to its overload and potential crash.
The Smurf attack is a
type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that exploits the vulnerabilities of the Internet
Protocol (IP) and the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Reference: EC-Council Certified
Security Specialist (E|CSS) course materials and documents

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Question 3

Kevin, an attacker, is attempting to compromise a cloud server. In this process, Kevin intercepted the
SOAP messages transmitted between a user and the server, manipulated the body of the message,
and then redirected it to the server as a legitimate user to gain access and run malicious code on the
cloud server.
Identify the attack initiated by Kevin on the target cloud server.

  • A. Side-channel attack
  • B. Wrapping attack
  • C. Cross guest VM breaches
  • D. DNS spoofing
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
The attack described involves intercepting and manipulating SOAP messages, which is characteristic
of a wrapping attack. In a wrapping attack, the attacker intercepts the SOAP message and alters the
body content to perform unauthorized actions, such as running malicious code on the server. This
type of attack exploits the XML signature or encryption of SOAP messages, allowing the attacker to
impersonate a legitimate user and gain unauthorized access.
Reference: The information is based on common knowledge regarding SOAP vulnerabilities and
attacks, as described in resources like the EC-Council’s Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) program
and other cybersecurity literature. Specific details about SOAP message security and wrapping
attacks can be found in the EC-Council’s E|CSS study materials and official courseware.

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Question 4

Bob has secretly installed smart CCTV devices (loT devices) outside his home and wants to access the
recorded data from a remote location. These smart CCTV devices send sensed data to an
intermediate device that carries out pre-processing of data online before transmitting it to the cloud
for storage and analysis. The analyzed data is then sent to Bob for initiating actions.
Identify the component of loT architecture that collects data from loT devices and performs data
preprocessing.

  • A. Data lakes
  • B. Streaming data processor
  • C. Gateway
  • D. A Machine learning
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
In the context of IoT architecture, the component that collects data from IoT devices and performs
data preprocessing is typically referred to as a Gateway. This device acts as an intermediary between
the IoT devices and the cloud infrastructure. It is responsible for aggregating data, performing initial
processing, and then transmitting the data to the cloud for further storage and analysis. Gateways
are crucial for reducing latency, providing local data buffering, and ensuring that only necessary data
is sent to the cloud, thereby optimizing network and storage resources.
Reference: The information provided aligns with the EC-Council Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS)
curriculum, which covers IoT device security, including how security works in IoT-enabled
environments and the role of different components within the IoT architecture12
.

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Question 5

Which of the following MAC forensic data components saves file information and related events
using a token with a binary structure?

  • A. Kexts
  • B. User account
  • C. Command-line inputs
  • D. Basic Security Module
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
In the context of MAC (Mandatory Access Control) forensics, the Basic Security Module (BSM) is
known to save file information and related events using a token with a binary structure. BSM is part
of the auditing system that records security-related events and dat
a. Each BSM audit record is composed of one or more tokens, where each token has a specific type
identifier followed by data relevant to that token type. This structure allows for a detailed and
organized way to store and retrieve event data, which is crucial for forensic analysis.
Reference: The explanation provided is based on general knowledge of MAC forensics and the role of
BSM in such environments. For detailed information, it is recommended to refer to the EC-Council
Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) study materials and official documentation.

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Question 6

Roxanne is a professional hacker hired by an agency to disrupt the business services of their rival
company. Roxanne employed a special type of malware that consumes a server's memory and
network bandwidth when triggered. Consequently, the target server is overloaded and stops
responding.
Identify the type of malware Roxanne has used in the above scenario.

  • A. Rootkit
  • B. Armored virus
  • C. worm
  • D. Spyware
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
In the scenario described, the malware that consumes a server’s memory and network bandwidth,
causing the server to overload and stop responding, is typically a worm. Worms are a type of
malware that replicate themselves and spread to other computers across a network, often
consuming significant system resources and network bandwidth in the process. Unlike viruses, which
require human action to spread, worms typically exploit vulnerabilities or use automated methods to
propagate without the need for user intervention.
Reference: This information is based on general cybersecurity principles and the common
characteristics of different types of malware. For detailed references, please consult the official EC-
Council Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) study materials or other authoritative cybersecurity
resources.

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Question 7

Joseph, a security professional, was instructed to secure the organization's network. In this process,
he began analyzing packet headers to check whether any indications of source and destination IP
addresses and port numbers are being changed during transmission.
Identify the attack signature analysis technique performed by Joseph in the above scenario.

  • A. Composite-signature-based analysis
  • B. Context based signature analysis
  • C. Content based signature analysis
  • D. Atomic signature based analysis
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
Joseph's analysis of packet headers to check for changes in source and destination IP addresses and
port numbers during transmission is indicative of a context-based signature analysis technique. This
method focuses on understanding the context or circumstances under which network data operates,
rather than just the content of the packets themselves. By analyzing the changes in IP addresses and
port numbers, Joseph is looking for patterns or anomalies that could suggest a security threat or an
ongoing attack, such as IP spoofing or port redirection, which are common tactics in network
intrusions.
Context-based signature analysis differs from other types, such as atomic and composite signature
analysis, by focusing on the behavioral aspects and the situational context of the network traffic.
Atomic signature analysis, for instance, relies on single, unique identifiers within a piece of malware
or an attack vector, while composite signature analysis looks at multiple attributes or behaviors
combined to identify a threat. Content-based signature analysis, another common technique,
examines the actual payload of packets for specific malicious content or patterns known to be
associated with malware.
Joseph's approach is particularly effective in identifying sophisticated attacks that may not have a
known signature or a specific malicious payload but exhibit unusual patterns in how they manipulate
network traffic. By understanding the context and the normal baseline of network activities, security
professionals like Joseph can detect and mitigate threats that would otherwise go unnoticed with
more conventional signature-based methods.

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Question 8

John, a forensic officer, was working on a criminal case. He employed imaging software to create a
copy of data from the suspect device on a storage medium for further investigation. For developing
an image of the original data, John used a software application that does not allow an unauthorized
user to alter the image content on storage media, thereby retaining an unaltered image copy.
Identify the data acquisition step performed by John in the above scenario.

  • A. Validated data acquisition
  • B. Planned for contingency
  • C. Sanitized the target media
  • D. Enabled write protection on the evidence media
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
In digital forensics, write protection is a crucial step during data acquisition to ensure that the data
being imaged cannot be altered during the process. This is essential to maintain the integrity of the
evidence. John’s use of imaging software that prevents unauthorized alteration indicates that he
enabled write protection, which is a standard practice to safeguard the original data on storage
media.
Reference: The EC-Council highlights the importance of data acquisition and the necessity of write
protection to preserve data integrity in digital forensic investigations12
.

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Question 9

Melissa, an ex-employee of an organization, was fired because of misuse of resources and security
violations. She sought revenge against the company and targeted its network, as she is already aware
of its network topology.
Which of the following categories of insiders does Melissa belong to?

  • A. Malicious insider
  • B. Professional insider
  • C. Compromised insider
  • D. Negligent insider
Mark Question:
Answer:

A


Explanation:
Melissa’s actions classify her as a malicious insider. This category includes individuals who
intentionally misuse access to harm the organization. Her intent to seek revenge and her deliberate
targeting of the company’s network due to a grudge from being fired are indicative of a malicious
insider threat. Reference: This explanation is based on general cybersecurity knowledge and
definitions of insider threats. For specific references, please consult the EC-Council Certified Security
Specialist (E|CSS) documents and study materials.

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Question 10

John, from a remote location, was monitoring his bedridden grandfather’s health condition at his
home. John has placed a smart wearable ECC on his grandfather's wrist so that he can receive alerts
to his mobile phone and can keep a track over his grandfather's health condition periodically.
Which of the following types of loT communication model was demonstrated in the above scenario?

  • A. Cloud-lo-cloud communication model
  • B. Device to gateway model
  • C. Device to device model
  • D. Device-to-cloud model
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
In the scenario described, John is using a Device-to-cloud model of IoT communication. This model
involves direct communication between the smart wearable ECC (IoT device) and the cloud, where
the data is stored and analyzed. Alerts and health condition updates are then sent from the cloud to
John’s mobile phone. This model is efficient for scenarios where IoT devices need to send data
directly to a cloud service for storage, analysis, and further action, without the need for an
intermediary device or gateway.
Reference: The EC-Council Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) curriculum discusses IoT device
security, application areas, and communication models, including how security works in IoT-enabled
environments and the types of IoT communication models1
.

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Question 11

A system that a cybercriminal was suspected to have used for performing an anti-social activity
through the Tor browser. James reviewed the active network connections established using specific
ports via Tor.
Which of the following port numbers does Tor use for establishing a connection via Tor nodes?

  • A. 1026/64666
  • B. 9150/9151
  • C. 3024/4092
  • D. 31/456
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
Tor Network Functionality: The Tor network is designed to protect user anonymity by routing traffic
through a series of relays (nodes). This obfuscates the source of the traffic and makes it difficult to
trace.
SOCKS Proxy: Tor primarily functions as a SOCKS proxy to facilitate this anonymization. Applications
configured to use Tor's SOCKS proxy will have their traffic routed through the Tor network.
Default Ports:
9050: The standard SOCKS port used by standalone Tor installations.
9150: The typical SOCKS port for the Tor Browser Bundle, a self-contained package with Tor and a
pre-configured browser.

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Question 12

Bob. a network specialist in an organization, is attempting to identify malicious activities in the
network. In this process. Bob analyzed specific data that provided him a summary of a conversation
between two network devices, including a source IP and source port, a destination IP and destination
port, the duration of the conversation, and the information shared during the conversation.
Which of the following types of network-based evidence was collected by Bob in the above scenario?

  • A. Statistical data
  • B. Alert data
  • C. Session data
  • D. Full content data
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
In the scenario described, Bob collected data that summarizes a conversation between two network
devices. This type of data typically includes the source and destination IP addresses and ports, the
duration of the conversation, and the information exchanged during the session. This aligns with the
definition of session data, which is a type of network-based evidence that provides an overview of
communication sessions between devices without including the actual content of the data packets.
Reference: The EC-Council Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) materials cover various types of
network-based evidence as part of the Network Defense, Ethical Hacking, and Digital Forensics
modules. Session data is specifically discussed in the context of network security monitoring and
analysis, where it is used to track and summarize network interactions.

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Question 13

Which of the following practices makes web applications vulnerable to SQL injection attacks?

  • A. Use the most restrictive SQL account types for applications
  • B. Never build Transact SQL statements directly from user input
  • C. Avoid constructing dynamic SQL with concatenated input values
  • D. A Accept entries that contain binary data, escape sequences, and comment characters
Mark Question:
Answer:

C


Explanation:
SQL Injection (SQLi) is a prevalent vulnerability in web applications that occurs when an attacker can
insert or manipulate SQL queries using untrusted user input. This vulnerability is exploited by
constructing dynamic SQL statements that include user-provided data without proper validation or
sanitization. When applications concatenate user input values directly into SQL queries, they become
susceptible to SQLi, as attackers can craft input that alters the intended SQL command structure,
leading to unauthorized access or manipulation of the database.
To mitigate SQL injection risks, it’s crucial to avoid creating dynamic SQL queries by concatenating
input values. Instead, best practices such as using prepared statements with parameterized queries,
employing stored procedures, and implementing proper input validation and sanitization should be
followed. These measures help ensure that user input is treated as data rather than part of the SQL
code, thus preserving the integrity of the SQL statement and preventing injection attacks.
SQL Injection (SQLi): This common web application vulnerability arises when untrusted user input is
directly used to construct SQL queries. Attackers can manipulate the input to alter the structure of
the query, leading to data exposure, modification, or even deletion.
Dynamic SQL and Concatenation: Dynamically constructing SQL statements by concatenating user
input is highly dangerous. Consider this example:
SQL
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = userInput ;
An attacker can provide input like: ' OR '1'='1'-- resulting in this query:
SQL
SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = '' OR '1'='1' -- ;
This query will always return true due to the OR condition and the comment (--) effectively bypassing
authentication.

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Question 14

Melanie, a professional hacker, is attempting to break into a target network through an application
server. In this process, she identified a logic flaw in the target web application that provided visibility
into the source code. She exploited this vulnerability to launch further attacks on the target web
application.
Which of the web application vulnerabilities was identified by Melanie in the above scenario?

  • A. Insecure deserialization
  • B. Security misconfiguration
  • C. Command injection
  • D. Broken authentication
Mark Question:
Answer:

B


Explanation:
Melanie discovered a logic flaw in the target web application that allowed her to view the source
code. This flaw indicates a security misconfiguration, which can lead to further attacks.
Security
misconfigurations occur when an application or system is not properly configured, leaving it
vulnerable to exploitation. Reference: EC-Council Certified Security Specialist (E|CSS) documents and
study guide12
.

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Question 15

Harry, a security professional, was hired to identify the details of an attack that was initiated on a
Windows system. In this process, Harry decided to check the logs of currently running applications
and the information related to previously uninstalled or removed applications for suspicious events.
Which of the following folders in a Windows system stores information on applications run on the
system?

  • A. C:\Windows\debug
  • B. C:\Windows\Book
  • C. C:\subdir
  • D. C:\Windows\Prefelch
Mark Question:
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The Prefetch folder in Windows is used to store information about applications that are run on the
system. This data helps in optimizing the loading times of applications. The correct path is
typically C:\Windows\Prefetch, not C:\Windows\Prefelch as listed in the options.
It’s important to
note that while the Prefetch folder does contain logs that can be useful for understanding application
behavior, it does not store logs for currently running applications or details about previously
uninstalled applications1
.

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