Management decides to implement a risk management system to reduce and maintain the
organization's risk at an acceptable level. Which of the following is the correct order in the risk
management phase?
A
Explanation:
The correct order in the risk management phase starts with Risk Identification, where potential
business risks are determined. This is followed by Risk Assessment, which involves analyzing and
prioritizing the identified risks. Next is Risk Treatment, where plans are made to mitigate the risks.
Finally, Risk Monitoring & Review is conducted to oversee the risk management process and make
necessary adjustments.
This sequence ensures a structured and effective approach to managing risks
within an organization. Reference: The sequence aligns with the widely recognized ISO 31000 risk
management standard, which outlines these core steps in managing risks123
.
John has implemented________in the network to restrict the limit of public IP addresses in his
organization and to enhance the firewall filtering technique.
D
Explanation:
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a network function that translates private IP addresses into a
public IP address. This technique restricts the number of public IP addresses required by an
organization, as multiple devices on a private network can share a single public IP address. NAT also
enhances firewall filtering techniques by hiding the internal IP addresses from the external network,
which adds a layer of security by making it more difficult for attackers to target specific devices within
the organization’s network. It is a common practice in network security to use NAT in conjunction
with firewalls to manage the traffic entering and leaving the network, ensuring that only authorized
access is permitted.
Reference: The information provided aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s
focus on network defense fundamentals, including the application of network security controls like
NAT12
.
Additionally, NAT’s role in conserving IP addresses and providing security by hiding internal
network addresses is well-documented and is part of the network security best practices345
.
What command is used to terminate certain processes in an Ubuntu system?
B
Explanation:
In Ubuntu, to terminate a specific process, you would use the kill command followed by the signal
you want to send and the Process ID (PID) of the target process. The -9 signal is the SIGKILL signal,
which forcefully terminates the process. The correct syntax is kill -9 [PID], where [PID] is replaced
with the actual numerical ID of the process you wish to terminate.
Reference: This information is consistent with standard Linux documentation and practices as well as
the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material, which covers system administration and
security tasks including process management. The kill command is a fundamental tool for process
management in Unix-like operating systems, which is covered in the CND curriculum.
Consider a scenario consisting of a tree network. The root Node N is connected to two man nodes N1
and N2. N1 is connected to N11 and N12. N2 is connected to N21 and N22. What will happen if any
one of the main
nodes fail?
C
Explanation:
In a tree network, each node is connected in a hierarchical manner, with the root node at the top. If a
main node (such as N1 or N2) fails, all the child nodes connected to it (N11, N12 for N1 and N21, N22
for N2) will be affected because the tree structure relies on the connectivity of the parent node to its
children. The failure of a main node will disrupt the transmission path from the root to the child
nodes, leading to a loss of connectivity for those child nodes. This is consistent with the principles of
network resilience and fault tolerance as outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender
(CND) program, which emphasizes the importance of each node in maintaining the network’s overall
integrity.
Reference: The explanation is based on the standard network topologies and fault tolerance
principles covered in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum.
Stephanie is currently setting up email security so all company data is secured when passed through
email. Stephanie first sets up encryption to make sure that a specific user's email is protected. Next,
she needs to
ensure that the incoming and the outgoing mail has not been modified or altered using digital
signatures. What is Stephanie working on?
C
Explanation:
Stephanie is working on ensuring data integrity for her company’s email communications. Data
integrity refers to the assurance that data has not been altered or tampered with during transit. By
setting up encryption, Stephanie is ensuring confidentiality, which protects the contents of the email
from being read by unauthorized parties. However, to ensure that the emails have not been
modified, she is implementing digital signatures. Digital signatures provide a means to verify the
authenticity of the sender and to ensure that the message has not been changed, which directly
relates to the concept of data integrity in cybersecurity.
Reference: The information aligns with the objectives and documents of the EC-Council’s Certified
Network Defender (CND) program, which emphasizes the importance of protecting data integrity
through measures like digital signatures as part of a defense-in-depth security strategy1
.
An enterprise recently moved to a new office and the new neighborhood is a little risky. The CEO
wants to monitor the physical perimeter and the entrance doors 24 hours. What is the best option to
do this job?
A
Explanation:
The best option for 24-hour monitoring of the physical perimeter and entrance doors is to install a
CCTV system. CCTV cameras serve as both a deterrent to unauthorized entry and a means of
surveillance to monitor activities. They can be positioned to cover the entrance doors and the street,
providing a broad view of the area that needs to be secured. This aligns with the principles of
intrusion detection and prevention, which include deterrence through visible security measures like
cameras, and detection through continuous monitoring.
Reference: The information aligns with the core principles of intrusion detection systems, which
include deterrence and detection, as outlined in the resources related to Physical Intrusion Detection
Systems (PIDS) and Certified Network Defender (CND) training materials12
.
Eric is receiving complaints from employees that their systems are very slow and experiencing odd
issues including restarting automatically and frequent system hangs. Upon investigating, he is
convinced the systems
are infected with a virus that forces systems to shut down automatically after period of time. What
type of security incident are the employees a victim of?
B
Explanation:
The symptoms described by the employees, such as systems being very slow, restarting
automatically, and experiencing frequent hangs, are indicative of a security incident involving
malicious code. Malicious code refers to software or scripts designed to cause harm to a computer
system, network, or server. In this case, the virus that forces systems to shut down automatically
after a period of time is a type of malicious code. It disrupts the normal functioning of the system,
leading to decreased performance and unexpected behavior.
Reference: The classification of this type of security incident aligns with the Certified Network
Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding and identifying various types of security
threats, including those caused by viruses and other forms of malicious code12
.
The CND program
emphasizes the importance of recognizing the signs of malware infection, which can include system
slowdowns, crashes, and other erratic behaviors that impact system availability and performance1
.
-----------is a group of broadband wireless communications standards for Metropolitan Area Networks
(MANs)
D
Explanation:
The IEEE 802.16 is a series of wireless broadband standards, also known as WirelessMAN, that are
designed for Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs). It specifies the air interface, including the
medium access control layer (MAC) and physical layer (PHY), of combined fixed and mobile point-to-
multipoint broadband wireless access systems. This standard supports rapid deployment of
broadband wireless access systems and encourages competition by providing alternatives to wireline
broadband access.
Reference: The information is verified by the IEEE Standard for Local and metropolitan area networks
Part 16: Air Interface for Broadband Wireless Access Systems1, and further details can be found in
the IEEE 802.16 Working Group’s documents23
.
The network admin decides to assign a class B IP address to a host in the network. Identify which of
the following addresses fall within a class B IP address range.
B
Explanation:
Class B IP addresses range from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255. The first two bits of the first octet in a
Class B address are always set to ‘10’, and the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.
Option B,
18.12.4.1, falls within this range, with the first octet being 18, which is between 128 and
191. Reference: The information is based on the standard IP address classification as per the IPv4
protocol1234
.
Rick has implemented several firewalls and IDS systems across his enterprise network. What should
he do to effectively correlate all incidents that pass through these security controls?
D
Explanation:
To effectively correlate incidents across various security controls like firewalls and IDS systems, it is
essential to ensure that the timestamps of logs and events are synchronized. This is where Network
Time Protocol (NTP) comes into play. NTP ensures that all devices on the network are on the same
time setting, which is crucial for event correlation. Without synchronized time settings, it would be
challenging to establish a timeline of events and understand the sequence in which they occurred,
making incident response and forensic analysis more difficult.
Reference: The importance of using NTP for incident correlation is well-documented in network
security best practices and is also highlighted in the EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND)
course materials. The CND course emphasizes the role of NTP in maintaining accurate time stamps
across network devices for effective security incident management and analysis.
Management asked their network administrator to suggest an appropriate backup medium for their
backup plan that best suits their organization's need. Which of the following factors will the
administrator consider when
deciding on the appropriate backup medium?
D
Explanation:
When deciding on the appropriate backup medium, the network administrator will
consider Reliability as the primary factor. This is because the backup medium must be dependable
for restoring data in case of data loss or system failure. The reliability of a backup medium ensures
that data can be recovered accurately and completely when needed.
Reference: The importance of reliability in choosing a backup medium is supported by best practices
in data backup and recovery, which emphasize the need for a dependable backup solution to ensure
data integrity and availability1234
.
Which of the following network monitoring techniques requires extra monitoring software or
hardware?
B
Explanation:
Switch-based network monitoring requires additional monitoring software or hardware because
switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and do not inherently provide monitoring
capabilities. To monitor traffic through a switch, network administrators must use port mirroring or a
network tap, which involves configuring the switch to send a copy of the network packets to a
monitoring device. This allows the monitoring device to analyze the traffic passing through the
switch without interfering with the network’s normal operation. This technique is essential for deep
packet inspection, intrusion detection systems, and for gaining visibility into the traffic between
devices in a switched network.
Reference: The need for extra monitoring software or hardware in switch-based network monitoring
is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which emphasizes the
importance of implementing robust network monitoring practices to detect and respond to security
threats12
.
Additionally, the use of port mirroring and network taps as methods to monitor switch-
based networks is a standard practice in network security, aligning with the CND’s focus on technical
network security measures34
.
Steven's company has recently grown from 5 employees to over 50. Every workstation has a public IP
address and navigated to the Internet with little to no protection. Steven wants to use a firewall. He
also wants IP
addresses to be private addresses, to prevent public Internet devices direct access to them. What
should Steven implement on the firewall to ensure this happens?
D
Explanation:
Steven should implement Network Address Translation (NAT) on the firewall to ensure that the IP
addresses of the workstations are private and not directly accessible from the public Internet. NAT
translates the private IP addresses of the workstations to a public IP address before they are sent out
to the Internet, and vice versa for incoming traffic. This not only hides the internal IP addresses but
also allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address, which is essential as the company
grows.
Reference: The concept of NAT and its role in protecting internal network resources while allowing
Internet access is a fundamental topic covered in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course. It is
also a standard practice in network security, aligning with the objectives of ensuring the
confidentiality and integrity of network infrastructure.
What is the name of the authority that verifies the certificate authority in digital certificates?
C
Explanation:
In the context of digital certificates, the Registration Authority (RA) is responsible for verifying the
identity of entities requesting a certificate before the Certificate Authority (CA) issues it. The RA acts
as a verifier for the CA, ensuring that the entity requesting the certificate is who they claim to be.
This process is crucial for maintaining trust within a digital environment, as it prevents the issuance
of certificates to fraudulent or unauthorized entities.
Reference: The role of the Registration Authority in the verification process is outlined in the EC-
Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which covers the essential concepts of
network security, including the management and issuance of digital certificates.
Will is working as a Network Administrator. Management wants to maintain a backup of all the
company data as soon as it starts operations. They decided to use a RAID backup storage technology
for their data backup
plan. To implement the RAID data backup storage, Will sets up a pair of RAID disks so that all the data
written to one disk is copied automatically to the other disk as well. This maintains an additional
copy of the dat
a.
Which RAID level is used here?
B
Explanation:
The RAID level used here is RAID 1, which is also known as disk mirroring. In this setup, all the data
written to one disk is automatically copied to another disk, creating an exact duplicate of the data.
This ensures that if one disk fails, the data is still available on the other disk, providing redundancy
and protecting against data loss. RAID 1 is a common choice for systems where data availability and
integrity are critical.
Reference: This explanation is consistent with the principles outlined in the EC-Council’s Certified
Network Defender (CND) course materials, which describe RAID 1 as a configuration that duplicates
data across multiple disks to ensure redundancy and data availability1
.