A technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a network computer. The technician runs
ipconfig in a command prompt and receives the following IP address:169.254.0.6. Which of the
following is most likely the type of IP address being assigned?
C
Explanation:
An IP address starting with169.254.x.xis aself-assigned address(also calledAPIPA– Automatic Private
IP Addressing). It’s used when a client device cannot contact a DHCP server. This address allows
limited communication on the local network segment butno internet access.
Option A:DHCP reservations assign specific IPs from the DHCP server — they don’t result in APIPA.
Option B:Dynamic assignment from DHCP assigns valid IPs in the proper subnet, not 169.254.x.x.
Option D:Static IPs are manually set and would not fall in the 169.254.x.x range unless set incorrectly.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.
A recently installed printer is incorrectly aligning printed documents Which of the following should
the technician do first to fix this issue?
A
Explanation:
A . Run the maintenance application:
Most modern printers include a built-in maintenance application that can calibrate the print heads
and correct alignment issues. Running this tool is the first step to address misalignment.
Incorrect Options:
B . Clean the rollers: Cleaning rollers is typically done to resolve paper feed or jamming issues, not
alignment problems.
C . Upgrade the firmware: While updating firmware is beneficial for performance improvements, it is
not the first step for fixing alignment.
D . Reinstall the drivers: Misaligned printing is usually hardware-related, not a driver issue.
Key Takeaway: The maintenance application should be run first to resolve alignment issues in a newly
installed printer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.5 – Printer troubleshooting.
An IT specialist compares Bluetooth and NFC technologies for mobile device connectivity. Which of
the following statements accurately describes a key difference between the two?
D
Explanation:
NFC (Near-Field Communication)operates atvery short ranges — usually less than 4cm, and is ideal
for quick, secure transactions like contactless payments.Bluetoothsupportslonger ranges (up to 10
meters or 32 feet)and is suited for ongoing connections like wireless headsets or file transfers.
Option A:Bluetooth is faster for large file transfers.
Option B:NFC usesless power, not more.
Option C:NFC doesnotrequire pairing — Bluetooth does.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.
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Which of the following is an advantage of using VDI?
C
Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)hosts desktop environments on centralized servers.
Thisallowsrapid deployment and consistent configurationacross multiple users, minimizing manual
setup and easing IT management.
Option A:VDI still uses standard authentication methods.
Option B:Licensing can actually be more expensive due to virtualization software and backend
servers.
Option D:VDI centralizes the desktop environment — viruses would affect the virtual session, not be
"contained locally."
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
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A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the
local subnet Which of the following devices should the technician install.
A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration,
allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does
not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring
features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a
local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
Which of the following provides electricity to devices through network cables?
B
Explanation:
A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to
devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate
power sources are not available.
Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter – Chapter 5, pages 319–321.
Which of the following DNS record types is used to direct email to a mail server?
C
Explanation:
An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.
Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.
Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.
Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types.
Which of the following cloud models exclusively utilizes a local data center?
A
Explanation:
APrivate Cloudis operated solely for a single organization. It ishosted on-premises or in a dedicated
off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance — often
hosted in theorganization’s own local data center.
Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.
Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.
Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
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Which of the following types of RAM is typically used in servers?
D
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and
correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit
errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.
Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.
Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.
Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not
provide error correction.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 3.2 (RAM types and their uses)
A user is unable to access secure applications on their tablet when working from home a couple days
per week, but the applications work when in the office. Which of the following services most likely
needs to be reconfigured to allow for remote work?
B
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM)software often controls access to corporate resources based
onlocation, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the
office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work
only on-premises.
Option A:GPS is used for location services, not access control.
Option C:WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.
Option D:NFC enables close-range communication — irrelevant to app access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application
support.
A user wants to print files from an overseas office using a shared network folder. The user's laptop
has no public-facing internet connectivity. Which of the following can be used to print from the
shared network folder?
D
Explanation:
SMB (Server Message Block)is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including
across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a
shared directory.
Option A (ADF):Automatic Document Feeder — hardware, not a network protocol.
Option B (USB):Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.
Option C (PCL):Printer Command Language — relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
An SAS RAID array has severely degraded and gone offline A systems administrator examines the
syslog, and the point of failure is not obvious. Which of the following techniques should the
administrator use to identify the issue (Select two).
C,F
Explanation:
Clicking and grinding noises indicate mechanical drive failure.
SMART data provides insights into the health and status of drives, helping identify failing
components in the RAID array.
Why Not A (Run a magnet): This would damage drives.
Why Not B (Check if one drive is not level): Physical leveling is irrelevant.
Why Not D (Check OS logs): OS logs may provide limited information for RAID arrays.
Why Not E (Update RAID controller firmware): While important, it does not diagnose drive failure.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting.
A user reports that a software application functioned as expected the previous day, but this morning,
the user is unable to launch the application. Which of the following describe what the technician
should do next?
B
Explanation:
Identifying changes made to the system is the next step to troubleshoot why an application no longer
launches, as recent changes often cause such issues.
Why Not A (Research the symptoms): Research is broader and should come after identifying changes.
Why Not C (Determine which steps need to be performed): This comes after identifying the issue.
Why Not D (Check the vendor's website): This is a later step if further guidance is needed.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
A user's wireless headset shows a "connected" status when turned on, but the Bluetooth list on the
user's phone shows that the headset is "not connected." Which of the following should the
technician do?
C
Explanation:
When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is
tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles,
and re-establishes communication.
Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.
Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but
don’t conflict this way in normal use.
Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not
connected.”
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.
Which of the following connectors can be used to charge most modern mobile devices and may have
the capacity to send data audio and video?
B
Explanation:
B . USB-C:
USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to
send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-C).
It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power
delivery capabilities.
Incorrect Options:
A . Lightning: Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices and does not natively support video output.
C . MicroUSB: MicroUSB is outdated and does not support video output.
D . MiniUSB: MiniUSB is an older standard and does not support modern features like video output
or fast charging.
Key Takeaway: USB-C is the most versatile connector for charging and transferring data, audio, and
video.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 3.1 – Cable types and features.