cisco 500-451 practice test

Enterprise Network Unified Access Essentials


Question 1 Topic 9

Topic 9
Which platform supports Stateful Switchover in stacking?

  • A. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches
  • B. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches
  • C. Nexus 100V Series Switches
  • D. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
Answer:

A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-series-switches/white-paper-c11-
734429.html

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Question 2 Topic 9

Topic 9
Which option describes the benefits of a secure BYOD architecture using SGT?

  • A. complex network design and lower operational costs
  • B. eliminates ACL explosion and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation
  • C. complex network design and topology dependent segmentation using Security Group
  • D. Segmentation using Security Group is topology dependent and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation.
Answer:

B

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Question 3 Topic 9

Topic 9
What is ISE profiling?

  • A. a feature used to identify the endpoints based on network data obtained from a number of enabled probes
  • B. an ISE function used for applying security templates to endpoints when ISE is integrated with Cisco Prime Infrastructure
  • C. a dynamic policy feature that uses a number of enabled probes to apply the correct ACL to roaming wireless endpoints
  • D. a form used for self-onboarding of wireless devices
Answer:

A

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Question 4 Topic 9

Topic 9
Which dashboard under Overview in Prime Infrastructure 2.0 do you use to identify authentication failures and client status?

  • A. AVC dashboard
  • B. Client dashboard
  • C. General dashboard
  • D. Context Aware dashboard
Answer:

B

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Question 5 Topic 8

Topic 8
Which step is one of the typical configuration steps when configuring Flow Exporter for Prime Infrastructure 2.0 or higher?
A. Set the IP address to export the Flexible NetFlow cache entries to a destination system.
B. Configure the source IP address interface for each interface part of Flexible NetFlow exporter.
C. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 1991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter.
D. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 9991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter.

Answer:

A
Topic 9, Monitoring, Reporting, and Troubleshooting with PI and ISE

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Question 6 Topic 8

Topic 8
Which action is required when configuring Flexible NetFlow on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

  • A. Configure the flow descriptor.
  • B. Configure the flow exporter.
  • C. Configure the flow importer.
  • D. Configure the flow reset target.
Answer:

B

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Question 7 Topic 8

Topic 8
Which feature is used on the Catalyst 6500 Series Switch for real-time traffic capture and decoding?

  • A. Lancope Lite
  • B. Packet Monitor
  • C. Mini Protocol Analyzer
  • D. Inline Wireshark module
Answer:

C

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Question 8 Topic 7

Topic 7
A network administrator is using the Embedded Event Manager, which is supporting multiple actions initiated from the script.
Which two policy actions can be used within the EEM? (Choose two)
A. Execute a Tcl script.
B. Send an email.
C. Run another policy.
D. Hot swap the supervisor.
E. Manually send an SNMP trap.

Answer:

B C
Topic 8, Application Visibility and Control Overview and Configuration

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Question 9 Topic 7

Topic 7
A customer is configuring the IP SLA Embedded Event Manager applet. What is the meaning of this configuration line within
the applet: "event track 100 state down"?

  • A. Track 100 down state events and create a syslog message when the 100th down state is detected.
  • B. The tracking event "100" configured separately is used to detect the down state.
  • C. If there is a down state for 100 seconds, trigger the applet actions.
  • D. Stop tracking the interface if it flaps more than 100 times.
Answer:

B

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Question 10 Topic 7

Topic 7
A customer wants to dynamically monitor the status of a critical route. Which feature should you recommend that the
customer use?

  • A. Wireshark
  • B. Embedded Event Manager
  • C. IP Service Level Agreement
  • D. Generic Online Diagnostics
Answer:

C

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